Hi all,

Just two items of input from me.

The first is that I have been drinking instant ordinary coffee (i.e. non-decaffeinated) constantly during the past 20 months while I have been on this WOE, and sometimes have 6 or 7 cups a day. I haven't noticed that it makes any noticeable difference.

The second point follows from the first, and reinforces Gemma's conclusion: there are far too many variables for a study going back 44 years to be meaningful. In addition, there are no objective measurements that can be made - it is all subjective, anecdotal and perceived. Furthermore, there are questions of interpretation. One person's ability to detect and note a difference may be different from another's. What is the "norm" for one person may be regarded as aberrant for another. Even mass perceptions of a norm can change in 44 years. I think Gemma is absolutely right to consider the study insufficiently defined.

But the issue is interesting, and although I find the case "Not Proven" on current evidence, it has, for me, raised a question mark. I will be interested to see any more evidence on this.

Andy